Archive for February 2017

When you are deciding which steps to follow in assessing your patient, what should you consider first and why?

When you are deciding which steps to follow in assessing your patient, what should you consider first and why?




A. the past medical history of the patient because it predicts today's problem
B. the primary assessment because that identifies the life threats
C. the physical exam because subtle injuries are often severe
D. the vital signs reveal all the serious medical conditions the patient may have







Answer: B

When conducting a physical exam of an unconscious adult patient with a suspected medical problem, you remember there was a "Vial of Life" sticker on the front door of the residence. This is important because it may:

When conducting a physical exam of an unconscious adult patient with a suspected medical problem, you remember there was a "Vial of Life" sticker on the front door of the residence. This is important because it may:




A. reveal the patient's name
B. give clues to the patient's home address
C. reveal that additional medical identification is in the refrigerator
D. be the cause of the emergency








Answer: C

You will be conducting a rapid physical exam on an unresponsive 54 year old female medical patient. You should include all of the following steps except:

You will be conducting a rapid physical exam on an unresponsive 54 year old female medical patient. You should include all of the following steps except:




A. look for jugular vein distention
B. determine firmness or rigidity of abdomen
C. check for incontinence of urine or feces
D. ask the SAMPLE history questions








Answer: D

In terms of your initial approach to the focused history and physical exam of a middle aged male patient, the biggest difference between a responsive and an unresponsive patient is that:

In terms of your initial approach to the focused history and physical exam of a middle aged male patient, the biggest difference between a responsive and an unresponsive patient is that:




A. the responsive patient gets he OPQRST questions last
B. the unresponsive patient will be given a rapid physical exam first
C. bystanders become more important if the patient is responsive
D. a rapid trauma exam is not done on an unconscious patient








Answer: B

You are treating a 62 year old female who is complaining of difficulty breathing. This medical patient does not take any prescribed medication for her condition, so you should generally:

You are treating a 62 year old female who is complaining of difficulty breathing. This medical patient does not take any prescribed medication for her condition, so you should generally:




A. look for a medical identification device
B. consult with the patient's personal physician
C. transport the patient to the hospital
D. do all of these







Answer: C

The alert 58 year old male who is complaining of chest pain goes on to describe other recent hospitalizations and the medical condition the doctor is treating him for. This information is considered:

The alert 58 year old male who is complaining of chest pain goes on to describe other recent hospitalizations and the medical condition the doctor is treating him for. This information is considered:





A. unnecessary information
B. pertinent past history
C. the cause of today's event
D. the reason the ambulance was called







Answer: B

The 55 year old male continues to discuss his condition with you. His chief complaint is chest pain and when you ask "Do you have nausea or have you been vomiting?" you are questioning him about his:

The 55 year old male continues to discuss his condition with you. His chief complaint is chest pain and when you ask "Do you have nausea or have you been vomiting?" you are questioning him about his:



A. signs and symptoms
B. medication history
C. allergies
D. pertinent past history








Answer: A

Why is it important for the EMT to determine the T in OPQRST when questioning the 58 year old male with a chief complaint of chest pain?

Why is it important for the EMT to determine the T in OPQRST when questioning the 58 year old male with a chief complaint of chest pain?




A. the patient's temperature could be a contributing factor
B. the patient may have fell and injured his tibia
C. it is helpful to determine the time when the pain began
D. the patient may have sustained a tension pneumothorax







Answer: C

Your patient is an alert 58 year old male who is complaining of chest pain. The components of the secondary assessment for a responsive medical patient include all of the following except:

Your patient is an alert 58 year old male who is complaining of chest pain. The components of the secondary assessment for a responsive medical patient include all of the following except:



A. history of the present illness
B. SAMPLE history
C. baseline vital signs
D. rapid trauma exam








Answer: D

The detailed physical exam is not designed for the:

The detailed physical exam is not designed for the:







A. trauma patient with a significant mechanism of injury (MOI)
B. trauma patient with an unclear mechanism of injury (MOI)
C. medical patient with very few signs and symptoms
D. critical trauma patient who could have a medical cause in addition to being involved in a car crash






Answer: C

The final step of the detailed physical exam is to:

The final step of the detailed physical exam is to:





A. complete the examination of airway, breathing and circulation
B. make sure you have notified the emergency department
C. remove the collar and recheck the neck
D. roll the patient to examine the posterior of the body








Answer: B

A difference between the detailed physical exam and the rapid trauma exam includes:

A difference between the detailed physical exam and the rapid trauma exam includes:





A. skipping the face, ears, eyes, nose and mouth in the detailed exam
B. the detailed exam is usually done en route to the hospital
C. the lungs are not listened to in a detailed exam
D. the extremities and posterior are not assessed in the rapid exam










Answer: B

You are treating a patient who was in the front seat of an automobile involved in a collision. You observe a spider-web crack in the windshield and the facial lacerations on the patient. Most likely the patient:

You are treating a patient who was in the front seat of an automobile involved in a collision. You observe a spider-web crack in the windshield and the facial lacerations on the patient. Most likely the patient:





A. will have a life-threatening head injury
B. did not ear a seat belt or three-point harness
C. will also complain of leg injuries
D. was involved in a rollover collision







Answer: B

When assessing and interviewing a patient, we ask about and look for signs and symptoms. What is a sign?

When assessing and interviewing a patient, we ask about and look for signs and symptoms. What is a sign?




A. A photograph of the patient's wrecked vehicle
B. The patient's description of how the injury occur ed
C. An objective finding you can see, hear, or feel when examining the patient
D. A subjective finding that the patient tells you about his current condition








Answer: C

The need for cervical immobilization should be based on:

The need for cervical immobilization should be based on:




A. the trauma patient's level of responsiveness
B. the location of injuries to the patient
C. the mechanism of injury
D. all of these






Answer: D

If a cervical collar is the wrong size, it may:

If a cervical collar is the wrong size, it may: 



A. cause additional injury to the spine
B. make breathing more difficult or obstruct the airway
C. prevent the patient from moving her neck
D. take too much time to adjust and apply correctly







Answer: B

Experienced EMT's often refer to a soft cervical collar as:

Experienced EMT's often refer to a soft cervical collar as:



A. the device of choice for a neck injury
B. a "neck warmer"
C. the requirement for all auto collision patients
D. the preferred extrication collar









Answer: B

When is it appropriate to apply a cervical collar?

When is it appropriate to apply a cervical collar?



A. If the mechanism of injury exerts great force on the upper body
B. If there is any pain in the abdomen
C. If there is any burn injury to the neck
D. If the patient has experienced any trauma







Answer: A

In the secondary assessment, you will be checking the patient from head to foot for pain and tenderness. The difference between pain and tenderness is:

In the secondary assessment, you will be checking the patient from head to foot for pain and tenderness. The difference between pain and tenderness is:




A. pain occurs only when you squeeze an injury site, whereas tender areas hurt all the time
B. pain is considered unbearable, whereas tenderness is usually bearable
C. tenderness may not hurt unless the area is palpated, whereas pain is evident without palpation.
D. pain hurts only for the first 10 minutes, whereas tenderness doesn't go away







Answer: C

Your patient was thrown from his motorcycle when he stopped suddenly. His thighs are very painful and a strange shape. When a body part is injured and it no longer has its normal shape, this is referred to as a:

Your patient was thrown from his motorcycle when he stopped suddenly. His thighs are very painful and a strange shape. When a body part is injured and it no longer has its normal shape, this is referred to as a:




A. hematoma
B. deformity
C. fracture
D. crepitation





Answer: B

The "S" in DCAP-BTLS refers to:

The "S" in DCAP-BTLS refers to:



A. soft tissue
B. stable
C. swelling
D. stomach







Answer: C

The "P" in DCAP-BTLS refers to:

The "P" in DCAP-BTLS refers to:



A. punctures/penetrations
B. palpation/pulse
C. priapism/penetrations
D. paradoxical motion/punctures









Answer: A

You are treating a patient who was assaulted, and the bar where the fight occurred is still noisy. In a situation like this, it makes sense to take the patient's BP by ____ revealing only the ____ pressure.

You are treating a patient who was assaulted, and the bar where the fight occurred is still noisy. In a situation like this, it makes sense to take the patient's BP by ____ revealing only the ____ pressure.




A. auscultation; systolic
B. auscultation; diastolic
C. palpation; systolic
D. palpation; diastolic






Answer: C

The systolic blood pressure is:

The systolic blood pressure is:



A. created when the heart contracts
B. listed as the lower number in the BP fraction
C. created when the heart relaxes
D. seldom used in prehospital care






Answer: A

To determine a patient's skin temperature, the EMT should:

To determine a patient's skin temperature, the EMT should:



A. hold a thermometer in the axilla for 30 seconds
B. have the patient exhale onto a warming device
C. feel the patient's skin with the back of the hand
D. listen carefully with a stethoscope








Answer: C

The pulse oximeter is helpful because it:

The pulse oximeter is helpful because it:




A. encourages you to be more aggressive with oxygen therapy
B. helps you decide when you should withhold oxygen
C. indicates when a patient is about the become hypothermic
D. indicates that the patient is a heavy smoker





Answer: A

The pulse oximeter should be used routinely with:

The pulse oximeter should be used routinely with:



A. patients who have carbon monoxide poising
B. p[patient complaining of respiratory problems
C. any patient who is hypothermic
D. any patient suffering from sever shock






Answer: B

It is a bright sunny day and you are treating a woman who fell off her bike. She is lying supine on the sidewalk. When you assess her pupils, you should:

It is a bright sunny day and you are treating a woman who fell off her bike. She is lying supine on the sidewalk. When you assess her pupils, you should:



A. use a very bright light that is similar to the environmental light
B. cover the patient's eyes for a few moments, then uncover one eye at a time
C. apply a cold towel to the patient's eyelids for 10 seconds
D. move the patient indoors to an area that has dimmer light







Answer: B

The reading of a glucose meter is reported in:

The reading of a glucose meter is reported in:



A. percentage of oxygen in the hemoglobin
B. percentage of CO2 in the exhaled air
C. milligrams of glucose per deciliter of blood
D. none of these






Answer: C

Hot, dry skin is frequently associated with:

Hot, dry skin is frequently associated with:



A. high fever and heat exposure
B. exposure to cold
C. shock and anxiety
D. heat loss






Answer: A

A passerby called the ambulance for a homeless patient you are now assessing because she thought he was unconscious. He has cold, dry skin, which is frequently associated with:

A passerby called the ambulance for a homeless patient you are now assessing because she thought he was unconscious. He has cold, dry skin, which is frequently associated with:



A. high fever and/or hear exposure
B. exposure to cold
C. shock and anxiety
D. a body that is losing heat






Answer: B

The best places to assess skin color in adults are:

The best places to assess skin color in adults are:



A. under the chin and the nostrils
B. the inside of the cheek and the nail beds
C. the nail beds and the upper chest
D. the toes and the earlobes




Answer: B


Shallow breathing occurs when:

Shallow breathing occurs when:



A. there is only slight movement of the chest or abdomen
B. there is stridor or grunting on expiration
C. there is a complete obstruction
D. the chest muscles fully expand with each breath






Answer: A

The respiratory rate is classified as:

The respiratory rate is classified as:



A. normal, slow, or rapid
B. noisy, shallow, or normal
C. labored, quick, or noisy
D. weak, thready, or full



Answer: A




When assessing the carotid pulse, the EMT should:

When assessing the carotid pulse, the EMT should:




A. palpate the artery as hard as he can
B. assess both sides at exactly the same time
C. be aware that excessive pressure can slow the heart
D. apply pressure until he feels the pulse rate rise






Answer: C

Why is it essential that vital signs be recorded as they are obtained?

Why is it essential that vital signs be recorded as they are obtained?



A. to avoid having to take them more than once
B. to prevent forgetting them and to note the time they were taken
C. to give the patient a chance to calm down
D. because they will always change quickly







Answer: B

The steps of the primary assessment:

The steps of the primary assessment:



A. are patient dependent
B. depend on the baseline vital signs
C. must be followed in order
D. depend on the age and sex of the patient




Answer: C



During the primary assessment of an adult medical patient with a chief complaint of chest pain, you note that the breathing rate is 28. You should consider:

During the primary assessment of an adult medical patient with a chief complaint of chest pain, you note that the breathing rate is 28. You should consider:



A. oxygen by a nasal cannula
B. providing bag-valve mask ventilations
C. administering oxygen by nonrebreather mask
D. using a paper bag to slow down the rate






Answer: C

High-priority conditions include:

High-priority conditions include:



A. poor general impression
B. unresponsiveness
C. shock (hypoperfusion)
D. all of these







Answer: D

When assessing the circulation during the primary assessment, the EMT should check for and control severe bleeding. This is important to do because:

When assessing the circulation during the primary assessment, the EMT should check for and control severe bleeding. This is important to do because:



A. open woulds can become infected
B. it may lead to long-term complications
C. a patient can bleed to death in minutes
D. the blood pressure may drop over time





Answer: C

During your primary assessment of a patient who is alert and has a breathing rate that is greater than 24, you should provide the patient with:

During your primary assessment of a patient who is alert and has a breathing rate that is greater than 24, you should provide the patient with:




A. positive pressure ventilations with 100 percent oxygen
B. high-concentration oxygen via nonrebreather mask
C. low-concentration oxygen via bag-valve mask
D. medium-concentration oxygen via nasal cannula





Answer: B

You are assessing a patient who was involved in a serious motor vehicle collision. She is not alert and her breathing rate is slower than 8. As the EMT in charge, you should:

You are assessing a patient who was involved in a serious motor vehicle collision. She is not alert and her breathing rate is slower than 8. As the EMT in charge, you should:





A. give high-concentration oxygen via nonrebreather mask
B. quickly valuate the patient's circulation and treat for shock
C. suction the patient and perform rescue breathing
D. provide positive pressure ventilations with 100 percent oxygen





Answer: D

One major difference between the primary assessment of a responsive trauma patient and the primary assessment of an unresponsive trauma patient is:

One major difference between the primary assessment of a responsive trauma patient and the primary assessment of an unresponsive trauma patient is:




A. the assessment is done more quickly on the responsive patient
B. the unresponsive patient is a higher priority for immediate transport
C. there is no difference between the two assessments
D. a jaw-thrust maneuver should always be used on the responsive patient







Answer: B

One way to determine the patient's level of responsiveness it to:

One way to determine the patient's level of responsiveness it to:



A. put ammonia inhalants into each nostril
B. rub the patient's sternum briskly
C. place the patent's hand in water
D. press on the patent's nail beds






Answer: B

You are assessing a patient wand making observations about the scene. Finding drug-use paraphernalia a t the scene of an emergency is an example of:

You are assessing a patient wand making observations about the scene. Finding drug-use paraphernalia a t the scene of an emergency is an example of:



A. an indication of the patient's chief complaint
B. the environment part of the general impression
C. an assessment of the scene safety
D. a medical history of drug addiction






Answer: B

A significant danger faced by the EMT is violence. On arriving at the scene of a private home, you hear screaming from inside; there are beer cans piled up on the front porch; and, as you knock on the door, it suddenly gets very quiet inside. What should you do next?

A significant danger faced by the EMT is violence. On arriving at the scene of a private home, you hear screaming from inside; there are beer cans piled up on the front porch; and, as you knock on the door, it suddenly gets very quiet inside. What should you do next?



A. Enter the residence and search for weapons
B. Contact the dispatcher to inquire if they have ever had violence at this location
C. Retreat to a safe location and ask for the police to respond to secure the scene
D. Yell into the house that you are EMS and not the police




Answer: C



When arriving at the scene of a collision the EMT should:

When arriving at the scene of a collision the EMT should:




A. start placing flares across the road
B. don head protection, bunker coat, and a reflective vest
C. immediately start additional units
D. contact medical direction on the radio






Answer: B

While in the living room of a private home and treating a patient for nausea, headache, and general body weakness, your eyes being to tear. Three family members have the same symptoms. You should immediately:

While in the living room of a private home and treating a patient for nausea, headache, and general body weakness, your eyes being to tear. Three family members have the same symptoms. You should immediately:



A. evacuate all people form the building
B. call for three additional ambulances
C. notify the police department
D. begin to flush out everyone's eyes







Answer: A

In which of the following situations would it be necessary for you and your partner to call for additional assistance?

In which of the following situations would it be necessary for you and your partner to call for additional assistance?




A. you are treating a patient who had flu like symptoms and also has a toddle with similar symptoms
B. Your patient is a 350 pound male who fell down the stairs and has a broken leg
C. you are treating a patient with a deep laceration in his right forearm
D. your patent loses consciousness while you are carrying her to the ambulance






Answer: B

A severe fall for an adult is:

A severe fall for an adult is:



A. over 15 feet
B. often accompanied by an amputation
C. less than 10 feet
D. always fatal




Answer: A

You are on the scene of a car crash. You patient has stable vital signs and is complaining of knee, leg, and hip pain. He also states that he was in the front seat of the car and did not have his seat belt on. What type of collision did he most likely experience?

You are on the scene of a car crash. You patient has stable vital signs and is complaining of knee, leg, and hip pain. He also states that he was in the front seat of the car and did not have his seat belt on. What type of collision did he most likely experience?





A. head-on, up-and-over
B. rear-end
C. head-on, down-and-out
D. rotational impact




Answer: B


Which of the following is least likely to be considered a mechanism of injury for ta patient who was involved in ahead-on collision. She was the unrestrained driver who took the "up-and-over" pathway.

Which of the following is least likely to be considered a mechanism of injury for ta patient who was involved in ahead-on collision. She was the unrestrained driver who took the "up-and-over" pathway.



A. steering wheel
B. windshield
C. brake pedal
D. dashboard






Answer: C

You are treating a patient who was involved in a head-on collision. She was the unrestrained driver who took the "up-and-over" pathway. To which part of her body was she most likely to have sustained injuries?

You are treating a patient who was involved in a head-on collision. She was the unrestrained driver who took the "up-and-over" pathway. To which part of her body was she most likely to have sustained injuries?



A. Skull
B. Fibula
C. Knees
D. Femur





Answer: A

The physical forces and energy that impinge on the patient are influenced by the laws of physics. One of those laws, the law of inertia, stat that:

The physical forces and energy that impinge on the patient are influenced by the laws of physics. One of those laws, the law of inertia, stat that:



A. the faster you enter a turn, the more your vehicle will be pulled straight
B. the slower the speed, the greater the energy loss
C. a body in motion will remain in motion unless acted upon by an outside force
D. the mass or weight of an object is the most important contributor to an injury







Answer: C

Knowing the mechanism of injury assists the EMT in:

Knowing the mechanism of injury assists the EMT in:



A. immobilizing the patient's spine
B. determining which Standard Precautions to use
C. predicting various injury patterns
D. all of these





Answer: C


When you are in sight of the collision scene., you should watch for the signals of police officers and other emergency service personnel because:

When you are in sight of the collision scene., you should watch for the signals of police officers and other emergency service personnel because:




A. they may have information about hazards or the location of injured persons
B. the first ones on the scene are considered to be in charge
C. federal law requires you to follow the command of other responders
D. they are considered the medical-care experts on the scene









Answer: A

Which of the following is the most accurate statement about scene size-up?

Which of the following is the most accurate statement about scene size-up?



A. it takes place as you are approaching the scene
B. is it replaced by patent care once you arrive at the scene
C. it occurs during the first part of the assessment process
D. it continues throughout the call








Answer: D

What is meant by anatomical dead space:

What is meant by anatomical dead space:



A. the maximum amount of room for dying cells in the body
B. The compartment where tissue swells like edema
C. Hollow chambers like the sinus
D. The area in the lungs outside the alveoli






Answer: D

You are treating an elderly patient who fell and injured her ribs. She was found breathing at a rate of 44 and shallowly, yet she is starting to turn cyanotic. Why is this a serious threat to her life?

You are treating an elderly patient who fell and injured her ribs. She was found breathing at a rate of 44 and shallowly, yet she is starting to turn cyanotic. Why is this a serious threat to her life?



A. she is inhaling too much oxygen
B. her minute volume may be diminished
C. her minute volume is excessive
D. she is exceeding her dead space







Answer: B

The flow rate of a nonrebreather mask should be:

The flow rate of a nonrebreather mask should be:



A. adjusted so that when the patient inhales, the bag deflates by two-thirds
B. 12 to 15 liters per minute
C. adjusted to 6 liters per minute
D. all of these






Answer: B

Concerns about the dangers of giving too much oxygen to elderly patients with COPD:

Concerns about the dangers of giving too much oxygen to elderly patients with COPD:



A. are invalid in the out-of-hospital setting of a patient in respiratory distress
B. have been understated and proven to be a major problem
C. are invalid when the patient is over the age of 60
D. are dealt with by using a nonrebreather mask at low flow rates







Answer: A

Humidified oxygen is:

Humidified oxygen is:




A. not possible in an ambulance
B. not used for patients on chronic oxygen therapy
C. not needed in adult patients being transported for short distances
D. habit forming







Answer: C

Before connecting a regulator to an oxygen supply cylinder, the EMT should:

Before connecting a regulator to an oxygen supply cylinder, the EMT should:



A. remove the protective seal and then open the valve
B. stand to the side of the main valve opening and crack the cylinder valve slightly
C. attach the nonrebreather mask to the flowmeter, then attach to the tank
D. do all of these






Answer: A

The flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device should:

The flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device should:



A. operate in both ordinate and extreme environmental conditions
B. have an audible alarm when the relief valve is activated
C. have a trigger so two hands can be used to seal the mask
D. do all of these







Answer: D

When ventilating a 35 year old male head trauma patient with a bag-valve mask, it is most effective to do all of the following except:

When ventilating a 35 year old male head trauma patient with a bag-valve mask, it is most effective to do all of the following except:



A. use a device with a volume of 1,000 to 1,600 mL
B. use two EMT's to perform the procedure
C. position the EMT who is maintaining the mask seal at the patient's head
D. maintain the head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver






Answer: D

The bag-valve mask should be capable of:

The bag-valve mask should be capable of:



A. withstanding cold temperatures
B. providing a high pressure in the chest and airway
C. blowing off at pressures above 40 mm of water pressure
D. receiving an oxygen inlet flow of 25 liters per minute








Answer: A

The bag-valve mask on your EMS unit should have:

The bag-valve mask on your EMS unit should have:



A. a non refilling shell that is easily cleaned
B. a non jam valve with an oxygen inlet
C. a standard 9/12 mm fitting
D. manual disabling pop-off valve








Answer: B

Which of the following indicate adequate artificial ventilations?

Which of the following indicate adequate artificial ventilations?



A. Chest does not rise and fall with ventilation
B. Rate of ventilation is too slow or too fast
C. patient's color changes from cyanotic to pink
D. Patient's heart rate does not return to normal with ventilations








Answer: C

Various techniques can be used by the EMT to provide artificial ventilation in the field. Given plenty of trained helpers, which would be the least effective?

Various techniques can be used by the EMT to provide artificial ventilation in the field. Given plenty of trained helpers, which would be the least effective?




A. one-rescuer using a bag-valve mask
B. a flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device
C. two rescuers using a bag-valve mask with high-concentration supplemental oxygen at 15 lpm
D. mouth-to-mouth with high-concentration supplemental oxygen at 15 lpm






Answer: A

You should have been ventilating a patient with a BVM device. Your partner states you should be careful not to hyperventilate the patient because it causes:

You should have been ventilating a patient with a BVM device. Your partner states you should be careful not to hyperventilate the patient because it causes:




A. hypoxia in the heart tissue
B. vasoconstriction and limited blood flow to the brain
C. the blood pressure in increase excessively
D. all of these







Answer: B

Your patient is a child approximately 4 years old and is in respiratory distress, which may be leading to respiratory failure. Inadequate breathing in a child this age is defined as:

Your patient is a child approximately 4 years old and is in respiratory distress, which may be leading to respiratory failure. Inadequate breathing in a child this age is defined as:



A. less than 12 breaths per minute
B. more than 36 breaths per minute
C. cyanosis of the lips and earlobes
D. any of these







Answer: D

Each of the following is a sign of inadequate breathing in an adult patient except:

Each of the following is a sign of inadequate breathing in an adult patient except:



A. inspirations or expirations that are prolonged
B. breathing rate in an adult of 14-18 breaths per minute
C. breathing is very shallow, very deep, or appears labored
D. the patient is unable to speak in full sentences







Answer: B

The EMT needs to recognize respiratory distress and manager it so it does not proceed to respiratory failure. Respiratory failure is:

The EMT needs to recognize respiratory distress and manager it so it does not proceed to respiratory failure. Respiratory failure is:




A. the complete cessation of inspiration
B. inadequate breathing, which is a precursor to respiratory arrest
C. another term for respiratory arrest
D. caused by electrocution in young children






Answer: B

During the process of ventilation:

During the process of ventilation:





A. the intercostal muscles expand, causing the air to be forced out of the chest
B. carbon dioxide enters the body during each expiration
C. oxygen enters the body during each expiration
D. the diaphragm and chest muscles contract and relax to change the pressure in the chest





Answer: D

You are treating a 29 year old female who has major airway problems. She has thick secretions and blood in her upper airway that needs to be suctioned with a Yankauer. Which of the following is not true of the Yankauer suction tip?

You are treating a 29 year old female who has major airway problems. She has thick secretions and blood in her upper airway that needs to be suctioned with a Yankauer. Which of the following is not true of the Yankauer suction tip?




A. it has a rigid tip
B. it allows for excellent control over the distal end of the device
C. it is used most successfully with responsive patients
D. it has a larger bore than flexible catheters








Answer: C
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